You said it...

M=mv. In this case, you are saying the v = v(plane) - v(tread). In order for this to be the case, the wheels MUST have an effect on the forward motion of the plane. We have all agreed that the wheels are FREELY spinning, so how can they? The plane's velocity has an effect on tread velocity because that is how the original problem is stated.

New equation: F=ma

Force acting on wheel:
F1 = m(plane)*g {downward}
F2 = m(plane)*g {upward because ground pushes back equally}
F1=F2 and cancel out

F3 = m(wheel)*a(wheel) {rotational acceleration of round mass due to contact with the treadmill when it moves. This acceleration is purely rotational and has minimal effect on the plane because of a small amount of lateral translation while it accelerates. Remember: FRICTIONLESS bearings}

Forces on plane:

F1 = m(plane)*g {downward}
F2 = m(plane)*g {upward because ground pushes back equally}
F1=F2 and cancel out

F3 = m(plane)*a(plane from thrust) {forward resulting in the only force acting on the plane and causing forward motion}

Can you argue that a force that doesn't act on the plane alters it's stationary status? Just curious... <img src="/forums/images/graemlins/notooth.gif" alt="" />